The Tom Bearden

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Date: Fri, 14 Mar 2003 21:46:49 -0600
Dear Juan,

Just check Jackson, Classical Electrodynamics, second edition, 1975, p. 223. Quoting:

p. 223:  "...[In the Coulomb gauge] the scalar potential 'propagates' instantly everywhere in space.  The vector potential, on the other hand, satisfies the wave equation ... with its implied finite speed of propagation c."

As you can see, what moves at what speed is something of a matter of choice. Usually one considers that the superluminal parts only affect the near field.  Again quoting Jackson, p. 222.

p. 222:  "...transverse radiation fields are given [in the Coulomb or transverse gauge] by the vector potential alone, the instantaneous Coulomb potential contributing only to the near fields.  This gauge is particularly useful in quantum electrodynamics.  A quantum-mechanical description of photons necessitates quantization of only the vector potential."

If you really wish to get into it deeply, the very notion of "propagation of energy through space" is what the problem is.  Nothing can propagate through 3-space!  Nothing moves without using time, and that is only in 4-space.  So the entire notion of "moving through 3-space" is a logical non sequitur.  It did not appear in physics until put there by Heaviside and Poynting, in the 1880s, after Maxwell was already dead.

In quantum field theory, there are four polarizations of the photon. With the z-axis taken along the line of motion, the polarizations are  (1) x- polarized, (2) y-polarized, (3) longitudinally polarized, and (3) time-polarized (scalar).

The first two polarizations are transverse, where the energy is vibrating laterally (like a plucked taut guitar string).  In the third polarizations, the energy density is compressing and rarefacting along the line of motion, like an accordion.  In the fourth polarization, the energy is oscillating along the time axis, which is not even in 3-space, hence there is no "vector" for that polarization in 3-space, and hence it is called "scalar photon". Note that on the fourth axis, ict, there is only one variable, t, and so it too must be a "longitudinal" wave of the compression and rarefaction of time, on that fourth axis.

Neither the scalar photon nor the longitudinal photon is individually observable.  However, the combination of the two is observable as the instantaneous scalar potential!

So that "scalar potential" in the Coulomb gauge must be made of combined PHASE CONJUGATE photon pairs, or -- in wave terms --- bidirectional longitudinal EM wavepairs, where each wavepair is a phase conjugate pair. This then matches Whittaker's 1903 decomposition of the scalar potential into just such bidirectional phase conjugate longitudinal EM wave pairs.

Time also can be viewed as pure energy.  E.g., the fundamental units one uses in one's physics model are entirely arbitrary (Jackson also explains that one, in both his second edition and third edition).  Suppose you use the "joule" as the only fundamental unit.  Then everything else --- charge, mass, time, length, etc. -- is nothing but functions of the joule.  Mass is simply E = mc^2, which we are all comfortable with, after the nuclear age and Einstein's formulation.  It seems that also E = tc^2, where time suddenly is seen to have the same extraordinarily high energy density (spatial energy compression) as does mass. Since the form of energy can be changed, then the scalar photon can be changed into the longitudinal photon, and vice versa.  I have hypothesized (and it seems to explain some very unusual cold fusion experimental phenomena, which are explainable no other way) that this kind of transduction of energy (from time-energy to 3-space energy, and vice versa) can and does occur.  Hence one can have "time charging", which is a very special kind of potentialization!  We can also have "time-charge decay", which is the change of time-charge (just time itself) into energy.

This has led to the postulation (still to be experimentally confirmed or refuted) that what we call "propagation" of normal EM energy through space is actually the iterative progressive appearance of the 3-space intersection of an ongoing 4-circulation of EM energy between 3-space and the time domain.  Negative charge seems to involve the time energy input and change to 3-space energy as input to the positive charge, which receives 3-space energy input and transduces it back to time-energy.

In this rather radical view, we have always been "using time-energy" or "burning time", so to speak, when we use EM energy anyway -- accounting for the puzzle of time's arrow.

Anyway, the quantum potential (Bohm's hidden variable theory of quantum mechanics, which slowly gains more support every year) always moves instantly.  The scalar potential in the coulomb gauge moves instantaneously. The de Broglie wave is superluminal, between c and infinity in velocity. Longitudinal EM waves seem capable of moving either subluminally or superluminally, depending on their contamination with transverse wave residues; a pure longitudinal EM wave seems to move instantly (its coulomb gauge seems therefore to be macroscopically extended).

As you can see, present physics has only scratched the surface.  We still have lots of things left to study.

The key to Tesla's success is his clear statement that he was using longitudinal EM waves.  If so, then those could indeed move superluminally, even with some transverse EM wave impurities in them.

Best wishes,

Tom Bearden

Fwd: tesla wardencliff experiment

Time: 14 Mar 2003 20:54:48.0741 (UTC)

Dr Bearden

Congratulations for your excellent web page and works. Maybe you can help me to answer this question about the Tesla's Wardencliff experiment its true or not that he could achieve a speed of 1.5 light speed of the electric waves with the EARTH'S RESONANCE, how he could measure that speed? its has been replicated anotherelse time?